IB Biology HL Theme A: Unity and diversity questions

Exam-style multiple choice and written questions with full markschemes. Check multiple choice answers straight away, or type, photograph or draw a written answer and get it marked.

Question 1

Paper 2Medium16 marks

A student investigated the effect of water availability on seed germination. Five dishes were used for each treatment, with 20 seeds in each dish. Each dish contained filter paper and the same type of water. The dishes were kept at the same temperature and light conditions. After 72 hours, a seed was counted as germinated if its radicle had emerged. At 20 mL, the seeds were fully submerged; at the other volumes, the filter paper was moist but the seeds were not submerged.

Water added / mLNumber of seeds germinated out of 100
00
238
582
1086
2042
(a)

Calculate the difference in germination percentage points between the 10 mL and 20 mL treatments.

[2]
(b)

Describe the relationship between water added and germination.

[3]
(c)

Explain why germination was absent without added water but high in the 5 mL and 10 mL treatments.

[3]
(d)

Explain how water acts as a transport medium from roots to leaves in a seedling, including one adaptation of xylem for this role.

[3]
(e)

The syllabus statement is that water is the medium for life. Using the results and your biological knowledge, explain how water can be essential as a medium without increasing water volume always increasing germination. Refer to the environment in which the first cells originated and to a role of water in present-day cells.

[5]

Question 2

Multiple choiceHard1 mark

For one star, a model places the Goldilocks zone—the orbital band where surface conditions could permit liquid water—at 1.20–2.00 × 10¹¹ m. A survey retains a site only if it is in this band, has liquid water and shows the expected solubility pattern for known hydrophilic and hydrophobic probes. Which site should be retained?

SiteOrbital distance / (10¹¹ m)Water observedHydrophilic probe in waterHydrophobic probe in water
A1.50LiquidDissolvedDissolved
B1.70IceNo liquid sampleNo liquid sample
C1.80LiquidDissolvedUndissolved
D2.20LiquidDissolvedUndissolved
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. The modeled zone spans 1.20–2.00 × 10¹¹ m, so site C at 1.80 × 10¹¹ m is within it. Its sample is liquid, with the hydrophilic probe dissolved and the hydrophobic probe undissolved, matching water’s solvent properties. Many hydrophilic molecules dissolve in water, and most enzymes catalyse reactions in aqueous solution, so these observations support a possible medium for metabolism, but do not establish that life is present.
A: the location and liquid water fit, but dissolution of the known hydrophobic probe does not match the expected solvent pattern.
B: being in the zone does not make ice a liquid aqueous medium for enzyme catalysis.
D: the solvent observations fit, but 2.20 × 10¹¹ m is beyond the survey’s zone.
Remember: the Goldilocks zone makes surface liquid water possible; it does not guarantee water or life.

Question 3

Multiple choiceEasy1 mark

During molecular visualization of chromatin, a student selects a DNA–protein unit for closer study. Which arrangement in the model represents a nucleosome?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. A nucleosome has DNA wrapped around a core of eight histone proteins, with an additional histone attached to linker DNA.

A: uses seven histone proteins in the core instead of eight. B: places the additional histone on the core rather than on linker DNA. D: omits the additional histone attached to linker DNA.

Remember: distinguish the eight-protein core from the additional linker-associated histone.

Question 4

Paper 2Easy4 marks

Figure 1 shows the number of possible DNA base sequences for strands of different lengths.

12340163248648096112128144160176192208224240256Length of DNA strand / nucleotide positionsNumber of possible base sequences41664256
(a)

Use Figure 1 to state the number of possible DNA base sequences for a strand of four nucleotide positions.

[1]
(b)

Use the pattern in Figure 1 to explain how a short DNA molecule can store a large amount of information.

[1]
(c)

Explain how complementary base pairing, based on hydrogen bonding, allows genetic information to be replicated and expressed.

[2]

Question 5

Paper 2Easy6 marks

A research group summarized its estimates for the ages of the first living cells and the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) in Figure 1. The estimates are ranges in Ga, where 1 Ga is one billion years before the present. The estimate for the first living cells was based on fossilized evidence in ancient seafloor hydrothermal-vent precipitates; the estimate for LUCA was based on conserved sequences from genomic analysis.

00.20.40.60.811.21.41.61.822.22.42.62.833.23.43.63.84Estimated time before present / GaFirst living cellsLUCA
(a)

Using Figure 1, state the estimated age range for each of the first living cells and LUCA.

[2]
(b)

State the interval in which the two estimates overlap.

[1]
(c)

State what the fossilized evidence in ancient seafloor hydrothermal-vent precipitates indicates.

[1]
(d)

State what conserved sequences from genomic analysis indicate about LUCA.

[1]
(e)

Using Figure 1, state what the age estimates show about the time scale over which life has been evolving.

[1]

Question 6

Multiple choiceMedium1 mark

A study finds the same genetic code and shared genes across bacteria, archaea and eukaryotes. The oldest known fossil evidence of cells is dated to 3.5 billion years ago, while a molecular-clock estimate places LUCA at 3.8 billion years ago. Which interpretation is supported?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A universal genetic code and genes shared across the three domains support common ancestry and LUCA. A molecular clock estimates LUCA’s age, while fossils provide evidence that cells existed by the fossil date, not the exact beginning of life. Earlier lineages could have become extinct through competition with LUCA and its descendants. A: Treats the oldest known fossil as the exact origin of life; fossil evidence does not establish that life began then. C: Reverses the dating approaches: molecular clocks estimate LUCA’s age, while fossils provide evidence of ancient cells. D: Equates LUCA with the first life and treats its estimated age as excluding earlier forms. Remember: LUCA is the latest common ancestor of extant life, not necessarily the first life.

Question 7

Multiple choiceMedium1 mark

A filamentous eukaryote has a cell wall containing chitin. Microscopy of one tube shows many nuclei in a continuous length of cytoplasm, with no cross-walls. Which interpretation accounts for both observations?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. Chitin is characteristic of fungal cell walls. The absence of cross-walls and presence of many nuclei in continuous cytoplasm identify an aseptate fungal hypha.

A: associates a cell wall with plants but overlooks that plant walls contain cellulose, not chitin.
C: matches the multiple nuclei but overlooks that skeletal muscle cells have no cell wall.
D: identifies a fungus from the chitin wall but contradicts the observation that there are no cross-walls.
Remember: aseptate fungal hyphae contain multiple nuclei in continuous cytoplasm.

Question 8

Paper 2Medium16 marks

A student makes a temporary mount of leaf epidermal cells and examines it using a light microscope. At the objective used, a length of 100 μm on a stage micrometer spans 40 eyepiece graticule divisions. One cell has a width of 24 eyepiece graticule divisions. A printed image of the same cell has a width of 6.0 mm. Assume that the printed image has not been resized.

(a)

Calculate the actual length represented by one eyepiece graticule division.

[2]
(b)

Calculate the actual width of the cell and the magnification of the printed image. State the length on the printed image of a scale bar representing 10 μm.

[5]
(c)

A fluorescent stain is used to make cell boundaries visible. To locate protein R, a fluorescently labelled antibody against R is used. Describe how immunofluorescence reveals the location of R and distinguish it from the use of the fluorescent stain.

[3]
(d)

In a further test, 100 cells were scored according to the location of the strongest detectable fluorescence signal.

PreparationPlasma membrane (%)Cytoplasm (%)No detectable signal (%)
Fluorescently labelled antibody against R70255
Fluorescently labelled non-specific antibody6787

Assess the claim that protein R is located exclusively at the plasma membrane, using the data.

[3]
(e)

Another team wants to investigate the internal surfaces of cell membranes and the detailed structure of a protein complex while preserving it close to its native state. Outline how electron microscopy and its developments can be used to address these aims.

[3]

Question 9

Multiple choiceMedium1 mark

Bacteriophage lambda is undergoing its lytic cycle in bacterial cells. The table shows mean measurements at successive times after infection, all normalized per initially infected bacterium.

Time after infection / minPhage DNA copies per initially infected bacteriumAssembled phages inside bacteriaFree infectious phages
0100
102800
2028200
3028018

Which interval is most consistent with release of assembled phages from the bacteria?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. From 20 to 30 min, assembled phages inside bacteria fall from 20 to 0 while free infectious phages rise from 0 to 18. This indicates release; the phage DNA copy number remains unchanged during this interval.

A: selects the earlier increase in phage DNA, which indicates replication rather than release.
C: identifies the interval when assembled particles appear inside bacteria, indicating assembly before release.
D: assigns replication to an interval when the phage DNA copy number is unchanged.

Remember: distinguish replication, assembly and release by tracking what changes inside and outside the host cell.

Question 10

Paper 2Medium4 marks

A culture of Escherichia coli containing bacteriophage lambda was monitored. At 40 min, the culture conditions were changed. Figure 1 shows the measured concentrations of intact bacterial cells and free lambda particles.

02040608001234567Time after start of monitoring / minConcentration / 106 mL-1● Intact bacterial cells□ Free lambda particles
(a)

Using Figure 1, identify the viral cycle most consistent with each interval, 0–40 min and 40–80 min. Support each choice with one feature of the graph.

[2]
(b)

Explain how lambda DNA is maintained during the first interval, and state two ways in which the bacterial host supports phage production during the second interval.

[2]

Question 11

Multiple choiceMedium1 mark

The key is used for three local pond species. A field team identifies an observed animal and compares a barcode from pond-water environmental DNA (eDNA) with reference barcodes. The animal has no shell and six legs; the sample barcode is CTAG. Which pair gives the animal’s key identification and the species detected in the water sample, respectively?

Dichotomous key

FeatureIdentification or route
Shell presentPond snail
Shell absentGo to 2
Six legsWater beetle
More than six legsFreshwater shrimp

Reference barcodes

SpeciesBarcode
Pond snailGACT
Water beetleTGCA
Freshwater shrimpCTAG
Show answer and explanation

Answer: A. The key routes an animal with no shell to the next distinction, where six legs identifies a water beetle. The eDNA barcode CTAG matches the freshwater shrimp reference barcode.

B: identifies the observed animal correctly but assigns the sample barcode to the pond snail, whose barcode is GACT.
C: matches the sample barcode correctly but selects the shell-present route for the observed animal.
D: swaps the key identification and the species identified from the eDNA barcode.
Remember: a dichotomous key uses observable features; an eDNA barcode is compared with reference barcodes.

Question 12

Paper 2Hard16 marks

Two bacterial lineages, A and B, reproduce by binary fission. They can be distinguished by an inherited feature unrelated to gene marker M. At the start of an investigation, M was detected in all sampled A colonies and none of the B colonies. A mixed culture contained both lineages; a control culture contained B only. At each time point, 100 colonies of each lineage were sampled and tested for M.

01020300102030405060708090100Generations after start of cultureColonies carrying M (%)Percentage of sampled colonies carrying gene marker M○ Lineage A, mixed culture△ Lineage B, mixed culture□ Lineage B, B-only control
(a)

State two features of the biological species concept used to decide whether populations belong to the same species.

[2]
(b)

Describe the change in the percentage of lineage B colonies carrying M in the mixed culture over the 30 generations.

[2]
(c)

Suggest the most likely explanation for the appearance of M in lineage B, using all three series in Figure 1.

[3]
(d)

Two populations, P and Q, of another organism reproduce only asexually. Explain why the biological species concept cannot establish whether P and Q are the same or different species.

[3]
(e)

A student concludes that A and B must be one biological species because they share M after mixing, and that P and Q must be different species because they cannot interbreed. Assess these two conclusions, using Figure 1 and the biological species concept.

[6]

Question 13

Paper 2Easy5 marks

A botanical team reviewed a classification in which flowering plant species A and B were grouped together because their flowers have a similar shape. The team compared the same 12-base region of DNA in the three species.

Species pairNumber of base differences
A and B12
A and C2
B and C10
(a)

Identify the pair with the most similar DNA sequences.

[1]
(b)

Does the DNA evidence support classifying A and B as the closest relatives among these three species? Justify your answer using one comparison from the table.

[2]
(c)

Suggest why classification based on flower shape could have been misleading.

[2]

Question 14

Multiple choiceHard1 mark

A museum’s catalogue covers many species and must organize them for comparative studies while reflecting inferred ancestry. The table gives the branching sequence, from earliest split to latest, and current class assignments. A clade contains a common ancestor and all its descendants. Which proposal meets both aims?

InformationData
Branching sequenceS separates from P, Q and R; then R separates from P and Q; then P separates from Q
Current classesM: P and Q; N: R and S
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. A clade contains a common ancestor and all its descendants. The branching sequence gives nested clades P+Q and P+Q+R (and the full set); R+S is not a clade because their common ancestor also has P and Q as descendants. Classification can still organize extensive diversity for comparison, while unranked clades avoid implying that fixed taxonomic ranks measure evolutionary divergence.
A: It assumes both traditional classes are clades; class N excludes P and Q even though they descend from the same ancestor as R and S.
C: It treats the limitation of fixed ranks as a reason to discard classification, although classification facilitates comparative study.
D: It assigns rank by group size; the branching pattern does not require nested clades to have class and order ranks.
Remember: clades express common ancestry, whereas taxonomic ranks are fixed categories.

Question 15

Paper 2Easy6 marks

Researchers record the percentage of beetles in a population with an inherited pale-colour characteristic.

GenerationBeetles with pale colour / %
132
547

One adult beetle develops greater leg-muscle mass through repeated exercise. This change is not passed to its offspring.

(a)

Calculate the increase in the percentage of beetles with pale colour from generation 1 to generation 5, in percentage points.

[2]
(b)

State what is meant by evolution.

[2]
(c)

Explain why the change in leg-muscle mass in the adult beetle does not count as evolution.

[2]

Question 16

Multiple choiceHard1 mark

Researchers recorded responses to courtship displays between and within two species, then recorded the outcomes of resulting matings. Evolution is a change in heritable characteristics of a population. Which interpretation is supported?

PairingCourtship displays accepted (%)Matings producing viable offspring (%)Viable offspring that were fertile (%)
P × P849296
Q × Q819095
P × Q8880
Show answer and explanation

Answer: C. Courtship displays were accepted less often between species than within either species, indicating a behavioural barrier to mating. Although some interspecific matings produced viable offspring, none of the viable hybrids were fertile, so they could not pass alleles to later generations. The results indicate barriers to allele flow but do not show a change in heritable characteristics of a population over time.

A: Confuses viability with fertility; the hybrids were viable but could not reproduce.
B: Reverses the barrier stages: courtship affects mating before fertilization, while sterility occurs in hybrids.
D: Treats a difference between pairings as evidence of heritable change over time; the data do not establish that change.

Remember: Viable offspring can still be sterile and unable to transmit alleles to another generation.

Question 17

Multiple choiceMedium1 mark

A conservation team compares four candidate species. The tree shows their relationships and relative branch lengths; the status labels show whether each species is globally endangered. Which candidate best fits the EDGE programme’s conservation-prioritization rationale?

Species KNot globally endangeredSpecies LGlobally endangeredSpecies MGlobally endangeredSpecies NNot globally endangered012345678910Relative evolutionary history (units)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: B. EDGE prioritization considers both evolutionary distinctness and global endangerment. The tree shows that Species L has a longer branch not shared with close relatives than Species M: 5 units compared with 1 unit. Both are globally endangered, whereas Species K’s longer independent branch is labelled not globally endangered. Species L therefore fits both considerations.

A: selects the longest independent lineage but overlooks that Species K is not globally endangered.
C: uses the global-endangerment label but overlooks that Species M shares most of its recent lineage with Species N.
D: could result from misreading Species N’s status; it is not globally endangered and has only a short unshared branch.

Remember: EDGE combines evolutionary distinctness with global endangerment.

Question 18

Paper 2Hard16 marks

Ecologists surveyed the same twelve 1 ha woodland plots in 2012, 2018 and 2024. Expert teams used the same method, visited at the same time of year and spent the same amount of time surveying each plot. The table shows the numbers of individuals recorded for six native bird species. A zero indicates that no individuals of that species were recorded.

Species201220182024
A405070
B302412
C20144
D1072
E850
F200

A citizen-science portal also collected observations in the surrounding landscape. A record is one submitted sighting, not a count of unique species. The portal did not use fixed observer-hours or fixed locations, and sightings were not independently checked.

YearRecords submittedContributorsHabitat types sampled
20121 200803
20245 1006009

Other estimates for the same landscape were:

Measure20122024
Human population42 00059 000
Native woodland remaining / ha1 200780
Woodland converted to agriculture or settlement since 2012 / ha0420
Plots occupied by an invasive alien plant / 1217
(a)

Calculate the percentage change in recorded bird species richness between 2012 and 2024.

[2]
(b)

Describe how species richness and evenness changed in the bird survey between 2012 and 2024.

[3]
(c)

State one benefit of citizen-science observations and explain why the increase in portal records alone does not establish an increase in biodiversity.

[4]
(d)

A conservation group concludes that biodiversity in this landscape is recovering and that any decline in the bird survey was caused solely by human population growth. Evaluate whether the data support these conclusions.

[7]

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